JW's, When God our Father called Jesus God, why didn't Jesus deny that he was God?

Question

Hebrews 1:8 But to the Son he says, "Your throne, O God, endures forever and ever." (not my words but God's

and in the OT Psalm 45:6 "Your throne, O God, is forever and ever; A scepter of uprightness is the scepter of Your kingdom."

You know, i think Jesus could have told his Father that he wasn't God, it would have been the perfect opportunity for him to let us all know.

Answer 1

Like they did in so many verses , the King James translators mistranslated Psalm 45:6 to try to prove Jesus is God. It didn't fool true Christians.

Notice how other translations of the Bible translated it according to the original Hebrew text.



Psalm 45:6.( See the Footnote.)

New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)

6 Your throne, O God,[a] endures forever and ever.

Your royal scepter is a scepter of equity;

Footnote:

Psalm 45:6 Or Your throne is a throne of God ( this is correct)



Psalm 45:6

Revised Standard Version (RSV)

6 Your divine throne endures for ever and ever.

Your royal scepter is a scepter of equity



Psalms 45:6 Good News Translation

The kingdom that God has given you

will last forever and ever.

You rule over your people with justice;



Psalm 45:6

Revised Standard Version Catholic Edition (RSVCE)

6 Your divine throne endures for ever and ever.

Your royal scepter is a scepter of equity;

🔹🔹🔹🔹🔹🔹🔹🔹🔹🔹🔹🔹🔹🔹🔹🔹🔹

Now notice what the next verse says:

Psalm 45:7

New Revised Standard Version (NRSV)

7 you love righteousness and hate wickedness.

Therefore GOD, YOUR GOD has anointed you

with the oil of gladness beyond your companions;

🔸🔸🔸🔸🔸🔸

Ok, did you see that Jesus is being spoken to here? So do you see it is saying that the God of Jesus anointed him?

Almighty God needs no one to anoint him. Jesus did and was.

Verse 7 is also saying that the future Messiah and King has a God.



Does Almighty God have a God? Of course not. But Gods Son Jesus certainly does and his name is Jehovah.

Answer 2

Faith has given you a comprehensive answer, using a number of Bibles so that you cant accuse us of the usual "you twist the scriptures in your NWT" response - well done,my sister



It amazes me how so many of the anti JWs on here cling to such a terrible translation as the KJV. Do you not understand that it is a really duff rendering of the scriptures with something like 4000 translations errors? You are blinded by your leaders and misled.



The update you give - do you not understand that the Bible tells us there are many gods? Superior persons are called gods, moses, kings even satan is called god. So, no big problem there. Jesus was a god and Thomas recognised that.

Answer 3

Consider the source of the power and authority bestowed upon Jesus.



With reference to the Son, the Bible states: “God is your throne forever and ever, and the scepter of your kingdom is the scepter of uprightness. You loved righteousness, and you hated lawlessness.” (Hebrews 1:8, 9)



Jesus’ throne, that is, his office or authority, has its source in Jehovah. God is the Originator and Giver of this throne. No problems will be too grave for Jesus to resolve.



He had accomplished his primary purpose of sanctifying his Father’s name. This he did, not just by using that name, but by revealing the Person it represents, displaying his Father’s splendid qualities his love, wisdom, justice, and power enabling persons to know or experience what God’s name stands for.



And above all, he did it by upholding Jehovah’s universal sovereignty, showing that his own Kingdom government would be based solidly on that Supreme Source of authority. Therefore it could be said of him: “God is your throne forever.” Heb 1:8.

Answer 4

I'm with you on this discussion.



Also, Jesus says that He is Almighty God in Rev 1:8. in plain words. Whenever I bring this up on a question about Jesus being God or not, I use this reference and no one has ever said anything about it one way or another. It is Jesus speaking (saith the Lord) ..



nice question and you really helped me think on this

Answer 5

This is hard to understand but imagine a triangle. Each corner is different but the middle is the same.



Think. God is the father. God is the son. God is the spirit. But the spirit isn't the father or the son. Or vice versa



Think of this. (This is just reference) You are you. Your a son (of your father) your a brother and you are a cousin. But you are you. Three people in one.



Jesus is god. But. He had to become human to sacrifice himself. He took his godly divine powers and put then away in his back pocket. So he became human. The only perfect human. Sinless. He sacrificed himself. Then brought out his godly powers to punch satan in his face and rise from the dead

Answer 6

one other thing, i still don't get why Jesus didn't tell Thomas that he wasn't God when Tomas called him Lord and God.....

John 20:28

And Thomas answered and said to him, My LORD and my God.

Answer 7

Greetings,



Jesus didn’t need to deny that he was called God because when the Bible called someone God there was no implication that the person was equal to Almighty God.



As usual the Trinitarian logic is faulty because it demands that we believe that "because Jesus is called God, therefore he must be Almighty God." However, if this reasoning were correct then it would mean that Satan, Moses, the whole nation of Israel and angels were also Almighty God. Obviously, the very foundation of Trinitarian logic is proven false.



So perhaps you can tell us why Jehovah God repeatedly calls many others “God” without any denial? Jehovah Himself calls both angels and humans “God” (Ex.4:16; 7:1; Ps.8:5; 82:1,6; 136:2; 138:1; Jn.10:34).



Witnesses recognize that Christ is called "God" several times in the N.T. But this does not contradict our belief at all because we also know that EVERY TIME Jesus is called "god" the context always shows that Jesus is separated from, and less than, the Eternal Almighty God.



Trinitarian leaders keep their flock in ignorance of the fact that the original words for "God" (ELOHIM/QEOS) were not used as an exclusive title for Almighty God. In the Bible this title was used of men, angels, Moses, Paul and Satan: (Ex. 4:16; 7:1; 21:6; 22:8-9,28; Ps. 8:5/Heb. 2:8; Ps. 82:1,6; 97:7; 136:2; 138:1; Jn.10:34; 2Cor.4:4).



It was quite possible in Jewish and Christian monotheism to speak of mighty or divine beings as "god," (THEOS). This is because the sense of "god" is relative. Humans and angels are correctly called "god," but they still have Jehovah God over them. The term "god" simply means someone who is over others in some capacity.



You cite Ps.45:6 and Heb.1:8,9 can explain why the Bible here references TWO Gods. The Bible consistently does this when it speaks of Christ and “his God”?!!! (Jn.20:17; Rm.15:6; 1Cor.11:3; 2Cor.1:3; Eph.1:17; Heb.1:9; Rev.1:6; 3:2,12).



The Witnesses can easily explain how this is the case but this is a fatal problem for Trinitarians. Because they cannot have TWO God's since the Trinity teaches that Jesus and the Father are exactly the same "God" and there is only ONE God.



Yet here GOD is speaking to another being who He calls "God." Outside the realm of Trinitarian word mythology, semantically we have TWO individuals who are BOTH called God!!!



This The only way they can save their belief without contradiction is to either ignore what the Bible says or resort to the Logical Fallacy of Equivocation, otherwise their belief is destroyed.



The fact is that Ps. 45:6 was originally said of a human king and shows that in Biblical monotheism *two* Gods can be referred to without negating the fact that there is only *one* Almighty God: "Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever. ... therefore, thy God hath anointed Thee."



The NAB footnote Ps.45:6: "O god: the Hebrew king was called ELOHIM, ‘God' not in the polytheistic sense common among the ancient pagans, but as meaning ‘god-like'."



"In the Old Testament...the noun ‘god’ is actually used of men. Psalm 45:6 provides a significant example, because here the GREATER AND LESSER SENSES OF THE SUBSTANTIVE ‘GOD’ appear side by side, namely, ‘God’ in the usual sense of the supreme God of Israel and ‘god’ denoting the person of Israel's king. Furthermore, this same passage appears in Hebrews 1:8 as a testimonium related to Christ, where it is ‘god’ in its LESSER CONNOTATION."—Jesus as "Theos" in the NT, G. H. Boobyer



So when Heb. 1:8,9 applies Ps.45:6 to Jesus it clearly limits Christ being called "God" to a representative sense and in a position less than Almighty God. This is because it states that Jesus still has a God over him: "therefore God, YOUR GOD, has anointed you."



This is just one of the places where the Bible makes it clear that even when Christ is called "God" he is still inferior to, and separate from, the Almighty God!!!





On the other hand, the Witnesses' belief is in complete harmony with God's Word, the rules of interpretation, and Bible Lexicons: There is one Almighty God but the title "God" can also be used of many different and unequal individuals. Calling humans and angels "God" does not put these individuals down on the same level as false gods nor does it mean that they are equal to the Almighty. Therefore, this in no way contradicts the monotheistic concept of a Supreme Deity as taught in the Bible.



Yours,



BAR-ANERGES

Answer 8

cause jesus was the messenger

and the god has no son

thats why he deny that he was/is the god



muslim here

Answer 9

this guy is no witness